As an example,
Laws against abortion still exist in some states, but a similar Texas law was shown to be unconstitutional (Roe v. Wade). Would one still consider abortion to be 'illegal' but courts will not convict due to the precedent from Roe v. Wade. I am not looking for an analysis of the law, I am just wondering what the specific terminology is.
Basically, if a law prohibits something, but someone clearly won't be prosecuted for it because a higher court has decided upon similar facts, would I still consider an act to be 'illegal' but with no possibility to be prosecuted?
2007-03-06
16:56:40
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4 answers
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asked by
presidentrichardnixon
3