Ok, I have the constitution open right now. You guys should all know the constitution. If not, here:
http://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/constitution.billofrights.html#amendmenti
(opened to the BOR)
OK, let's take an excerpt:
The first amendment:
"...the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances."
---OK, this is pretty obvious. Individual people have the freedom to assemble and complain to the government.
The second amendment:
"...the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed."
---OK, this is pretty obvious. Individual people have the right to bear arms. People claim that this means the state can organize a militia, but individual citizens cannot have private weapons. That IS the usual argument for gun control, correct?
So how come the first "right of the people" means individuals, but the second "right of the people" means the state, even though they are only..(I'm counting)
23 WORDS APART!!!
2007-03-28
10:39:17
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18 answers
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asked by
Anonymous