If the Greek word apo, translated "from" in 2Th 1:9, is interpreted to denote separation, as it often is interpreted to mean, then do you not see Rev 14:10 as a contradiction to that verse? If they do contradict, is it safe to assume that apo did not refer to separation, but a source (i.e. "from" meaning the punishment is produced by God, "from God"), which, in turn, renders the contradiction void?
Eastern Orthodox Christians see punishment happening in the presence of God, harmonizing with Rev 14:10, but with the popular interpretation of 2Th 1:9, others see the punishment as including separation from God.
How can we reconcile these differences and apparent contradictions?
2007-07-14
05:18:11
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12 answers
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asked by
enarchay
2