In all but two states, the popular vote determines how the electoral votes are to be cast. For example, since Gore won the popular vote in Illinois, then all the electors should, in theory, have voted for Gore. Of course, there's no law that prohibits faithless voting, but I don't think faithless voting is what caused Gore to lose the electoral college. So why exactly did Gore lose the presidential election in 2000?
2006-11-09
04:46:06
·
13 answers
·
asked by
Thegrip
2
in
Elections