In my G/F's divorce agreement, her x-husband pays 60% of the medical bills for their children, while she pays 40% (After insurance, of coarse). Anyhow, the bills seem to be mostly in her name, to where if she pays her 40%, then he still is not obligated to pay, being that the collectors will still come after her rather than him.
Is there a way for her to get the bills switched over to him after paying her 40% so that she doesn't have to get any bad credit in her name, and he is still forced to pay the bills?
2007-02-08
08:17:24
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4 answers
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asked by
sm177y
5