Ok. After reading some answers to various questions, I have a SERIOUS question here. I'm not trying to start a fight, I am just trying to get a straight answer (no pun intended).
Since the Old Testament "laws" are no longer valid, i.e. man with mankind like a woman, why do Christians then use adultery and pre-marital sex as a reason for homosexuality being wrong?
Knowing that our government (well, former government at least) wouldn't allow gay marriage, wouldn't this be unfair?
If our goverment allowed gay marriage (since they shouldn't make laws based on religion anyways, right?), then does that mean homosexuality would then be okay and accepted by Christianity?
If the basis of your argument is pre-marital sex and adultery is a sin, therefore homosexuals are a sin because they can't get married, couldn't it just all be solved by allowing gay marriage?
What would the Christian view point on homosexuality be then?
2006-11-09
04:45:44
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20 answers
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asked by
Heck if I know!
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