I think it is fair to say that -- at the time of the act (not retroactively) -- unwanted touching in the private areas is Sexual Abuse. And as far as casual dating, serious, exculsive dating and even up to engaged to be married one should not have for this reason alone an expectation of sexual contact. However, after marriage I think there is an expectation of Sex. That expectation should include the right of refusal because again any unwanted touching is sexual abuse, even with ones spouse. But if the spouse CONSTANTLY refuses to the point where one remains a virgin after years of marriage, is this not also Sexual Abuse? If one partner wants sex and the other ALWAYS refuses, is that not cruel? Refusing all but 1 time in 100 one must not accept as complete negligence, because it's still 10 in 1000 or 100 in 10,000. But 0 out of 100 is still 0 out of 1000 or 10,000. 1 in 100 is still IMHO cruel but 0 in 100 I think is Abuse. Do you agree? And does the answer depend on culture?
2006-12-28
08:23:06
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14 answers
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asked by
THe VaN
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in
Marriage & Divorce