My wife of a few years just informed me that she had a romantic interlude with a rival of mine. It happened when we werre still dating. He was having problems with his girlfriend and so were my then girlfriend and I. Up until that point, she had me believing that I was the only one who had ever made her c*** before. They didn't get past the "rolling" stage, and had arranged before they started of what was ok and what was not ok. She knew this guy hated the very ground I walked on, but still did it anyway. My question is, even if it's "rolling", where you do everything but the deed, is it still considered sex, especially if one or both parties reaches orgasm? I'm having a hard time looking her in the face for this betrayal. When we were apart, the women I dated had no relationship/meaning to her. This guy had history with me. I feel like she went into "scorched earth" territory when she laid down with him. What do you think? P.S., she's watching to see what results come back.
2006-07-11
06:37:25
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10 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Marriage & Divorce