seeing that it had never committed anything as such in its entire history of over 600 years. Why would an empire need to do that, while fighting against British, French, Russians, Greeks and many more at the same time (WW1) ? If it was because of any logical reason, why not earlier, when it had all the power and resources to do so? Why at the peak of its weakest time in the history, just a couple of years before it ceased to exist? What conflicts in the history of 600 years before 1915 can you name between the Ottoman Empire and Armenians that could build up to a genocide?
Hard to find an explaination isn´t it?
2007-10-12
08:15:12
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14 answers
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asked by
sultan.murat
3
in
Turkey