That Muslim women are mistreated and beaten because of verse 4:34 in the koran? I mean, just because it says the men can beat them, doesn't mean they do right? It's just like symbolism? Maybe like how at communion, Christians pretend to drink Christ's blood and eat his flesh, but it's just a cracker and grape juice...right? I mean, just because they actually do get beat, or shall I say, there are "alleged" reports of them being beat and mistreated...and they are forced into lives of subjugation in most Muslim lands, that doesn't mean anything right? I mean, as long as they toe the line and obey the master, er uh, I meant *man*, everything is copastetic, correct? So it's not all bad, right? The beating clause of 4:34 is basically a last resort, like when you are training a puppy to be housebroken, and you first use redirection, then time in the kennel, then a swat with a rolled-up newspaper...same deal, right? Just with human females?
Am I tracking now Drill Sergeant?
2007-12-07
04:04:17
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9 answers
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asked by
goldenchilde11
2