When someone brings up the oppression of women in the bible and their place, for example, 1 Tim 2:11-12, we aren't supposed to understand it literally, but in the context of the times. Women were to follow these dictates back then, but not now because they don't apply to our culture. "A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent."
However, verses like Romans 1:26-27 are still applicable, despite the changing nature of our culture. "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion."
Why is one subject to interpretation and the other not?
2007-04-27
12:06:10
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19 answers
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asked by
Muffie
5