It doesn't really make sense to me.
I doubt lots of people were really "consumed with demons" left and right, like the bible speaks of, having jesus go from person to person releasing these demons.
And on that note, i think it totally undermines the explicit message given in the bible when someone tries to say that, for all we know, these "demons" might have been illness and infirmity and such. If it is the word of god, why does god make it sound unnecessarily mystical, with "demons" meaning something that had nothing to do with actual significant demonic activity?
2007-10-21
14:36:40
·
18 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Religion & Spirituality