Considering a recent question regarding Jane Fonda and treason, some replied with "Without a declared state of war, there can be no treason." While it's true congress did not declare a state of war in Viet Nam, and still has not for Iraq, we still find ourselves with many POW's. My question is this: If someone cannot be held responsible for treason because there is no state of war, can the laws of the Geneva convention be bypassed as well? Additionally, can ununiformed combatants with no national allegiance be protected by such laws?
2006-06-15
11:23:19
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9 answers
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asked by
Anonymous