Wouldn't it be more fair to have criminal fines be a percentage of the violaters income or find some other way to punish people (community service, probation, jail time, etc.) that is more equitable? Most fines are a standardized amount set by statute. Obviously, if you break the law enough times you become a habitual violater and you will serve jail time, which is the same for rich and poor, but the first few offenses for the wealthy are essentially free while the poor begin "punishment" their first offense. Aren't people to be afforded equal protection under the law regardless of class, economic or otherwise? Aren't fines just a way for the government to supplement their budget?
2007-01-22
17:54:51
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5 answers
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asked by
Fishy5499
1