Now, to be fair, I want to say ahead of time that this is a loaded question. But that's what we do in the politics section.
I've always been curious how people justify "the seperation of church and state" calling it constitutional, simply because Thomas Jefferson ambiguously mentions it in a letter to someone. This claim is even more questionable when you consider certain phrases in the founding documents such as "that we are endowed by our Creator" and the fact that the date on the Constitution contained "the Year of Our Lord". Yes, all British official documents contained this phrase, that's true, but if the founding fathers were really wanted to break all ties between church and state, wouldn't removing that dating convention be an obvious first step?
So why did they insert that clause in the first ammendment? Because British law had alternated between mandating Catholicism and Anglicanism several times, and the founding fathers knew well the death and misery this caused.
2006-12-06
04:05:11
·
11 answers
·
asked by
Daniel A: Zionist Pig
3
in
Law & Ethics