The Catholics say that Mary is full of Grace and because of that she is sinless. That verse in Luke 1:28 is misinterpreted because that comes from the Latin Vulgate which was a Latin interpretation of the orignal Greek. This is what the orignal Greek says. The Greek calles her Highly Favored. Not Full of grace. Which is a different word.In Greek it is the single Greek word kexaritomena and means "highly favored, make accepted, make graceful," etc. It does not mean "full of grace" which is "plaras karitos" (plaras = full and karitos = Grace) in the Greek
Now comes the second part. Was Mary sinless? Here is the verse you tell me. It would seem not, since she said she needed a savior in Luke 1:47, "And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior."
I have sent these questions to imacatholic2 and he has not been able to answear them. Is there any Catholic out there that can successfully answear these questions. If there is I would love to chat with you over the internet. Thank you all
2007-09-04
11:06:12
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15 answers
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asked by
larryissfc
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Religion & Spirituality