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The Catholics say that Mary is full of Grace and because of that she is sinless. That verse in Luke 1:28 is misinterpreted because that comes from the Latin Vulgate which was a Latin interpretation of the orignal Greek. This is what the orignal Greek says. The Greek calles her Highly Favored. Not Full of grace. Which is a different word.In Greek it is the single Greek word kexaritomena and means "highly favored, make accepted, make graceful," etc. It does not mean "full of grace" which is "plaras karitos" (plaras = full and karitos = Grace) in the Greek
Now comes the second part. Was Mary sinless? Here is the verse you tell me. It would seem not, since she said she needed a savior in Luke 1:47, "And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior."
I have sent these questions to imacatholic2 and he has not been able to answear them. Is there any Catholic out there that can successfully answear these questions. If there is I would love to chat with you over the internet. Thank you all

2007-09-04 11:06:12 · 15 answers · asked by larryissfc 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

He doesn't answer qs that have faulty premises. And you are arguing semantics.

2007-09-04 11:10:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5 1

did he respond "i cant answer that?" or did he just not respond? also, you can interpret just about ANYTHING in the bible a million different ways, because, as a latin scholar myself, latin and greek words have many meanings. there is no one around today that spoke ancient greek. and just because mary is sinless doesnt mean she doesnt need a savior...since u like picking apart the bible (nothing wrong with that, by the way), perhaps "savior" is a title of honor? if you view everything else as having so many meanings, why not that? just curious. im not a catholic scholar so i cant say im an expert, but im sure you can find those answers somewhere

2007-09-04 11:27:36 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Catholics cannot say Mary is sinless as Romans 3:23 says ALL have sinned. But, Mary was obedient and I have no problem saying she was also full of grace. But, I do find fault praying to them or through them as they are not our savior nor do I believe they can hear us. They are dead and awaiting the judgment. Jesus when asked to how to pray said ... well you know. Later he said "whatever you ask the Father in MY name..." So, prayer should be to God in Christ name and drop the rest.

But, the Catholics are not the only ones that fall victim to this thought of adding to scripture or practice. The religious leaders of Jesus day were doing it to and any denomination older than a year probably have some too.

2007-09-04 11:23:22 · answer #3 · answered by crimthann69 6 · 1 1

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2016-10-17 23:17:22 · answer #4 · answered by joleen 4 · 0 0

*Is Catholic*

Not a problem.

The flaw in your argument is two fold.

First you predicate your analysis upon the Greek but the Greek itself is a translation of what Mary said in Aramaic (or or possibly Hebrew). Thus you cannot pit the veracity of the Greek against the Latin as if the Greek is what was said. If I grant to you that your translations of the Greek are correct, have you ever considered that the Greek might in reality be farther from the Aramaic in literal meaning than the Latin is?

Second, the flaw is that you make your own analysis and do not turn to what the Greek Fathers said about the condition of Mary.

Let me give a few selection from the time of the writing of the Vulgate to show that the Vulgate is consistent with the Greek usage of scripture.

"Whoever honors the Lord also honors the holy [vessel]; who instead dishonors the holy vessel also dishonors his Master. Mary herself is that holy Virgin, that is, the holy vessel" Epiphanius, Panarion, 78:21 (A.D. 377).

"Hail, Mary, you are the most precious creature in the whole world; hail, Mary, uncorrupt dove; hail, Mary, inextinguishable lamp; for from you was born the Sun of justice...through you, every faithful soul achieves salvation.” Cyril of Alexandria, Homily 11 at Ephesus (A.D. 431).

"Under your mercy we take refuge, O Mother of God. Do not reject our supplications in necessity, but deliver us from danger,[O you] alone pure and alone blessed." Sub Tuum Praesidium, From Rylands Papyrus, Egypt (3rd century).

"Mary, the holy Virgin, is truly great before God and men. For how shall we not proclaim her great, who held within her the uncontainable One, whom neither heaven nor earth can contain?" Epiphanius, Panarion, 30:31 (ante A.D. 403).
There are a few other logical mistakes that you make, the most dominant one is that Catholicism does not use scripture as what tells us what our religion is about. Scripture does not determine what the Faith of the Church is. Rather scripture is an expression of the Faith of the Church, as consigned to writing.

You are also making a historical mistake. The Vulgate is not a pure translation. It is a compilation. St. Jerome took all available variations of the scriptural texts, in all languages, alongside of various theological works and explanations of scripture as written by Christians and the Jewish interpretations and over 35 years produced a unified and corrected text of scripture in the Latin language.

Thus you cannot say that Jerome translated wrong as he did not simply translate, but what he produced is a product of a vast and deep understanding of the theology contained in scripture as well as its expression in multiple languages.

2007-09-07 08:34:18 · answer #5 · answered by Liet Kynes 5 · 2 1

he has asnwered them before, i am sure, however often times, people don't like anothers answers. we are also toldin the bible not to put new wine in old wineskins. is not Christ new wine? why would God put His sinless Son into a woman who was filled with sin?

2007-09-04 11:29:43 · answer #6 · answered by Marysia 7 · 0 0

a person who is full of the grace of God would be highly favored, don't you think?

Yes, Mary, like all of us, need a savior, Jesus Christ. In Mary's situation, she was savedby Christ at the moment of her conception. This is refered to as the Immaculate Conception. God's grace in her life preserved her from sin.

Mary was not a perfect person, but she was protected from the evil one by the grace of God.

2007-09-04 11:16:40 · answer #7 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 1 3

i am not catholic, but the only sinless person on earth was Jesus, Mary was just a good jewish woman who obeyed God, so he chose her to bear his son. God could have chosen any other woman on earth... Mary was still human, she is not the QUEEN of Heaven, there is no Queen... God is the KING and the only KING. Mary is just a righteous woman, not a holy woman, therefore she should not be in the catholic church (statue of her) that is against one of the 10 commandments: thou shall have no graven image. No images... and then you can't pray through her to tell Jesus what to do, that is blasphemy! Jesus told Mary what to do, he thought of her more as a friend than a mother... Mary has no authority over anyone, I am sorry to those who believe this... but it's all in the Christian Bible. Mary was human, not God... get it right.

2007-09-04 11:16:09 · answer #8 · answered by Luna Winter 7 · 3 4

Jesus is Mary's savior, the same as the rest of us. The difference is that Jesus saved Mary at the point of her conception. She was sinless her entire life.

2007-09-04 11:17:49 · answer #9 · answered by Adoptive Father 6 · 4 2

I did answer your question. You just did not like my answer.

Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.

The King James Bible, Luke 1:28 states, "Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women."

Before the Blessed Virgin Mary says "yes" to the angel's question and before the Holy Spirit came upon her for a different purpose:
+ She was already highly favored
+ The Lord was already with her
+ She was already blessed among women

When did Mary's state of grace begin?

Catholics believe this state of grace was with Mary since her Immaculate Conception. This means that Mary was conceived in the normal way (not like Jesus) but that she did not inherit original sin.

God prepared her for her later role as the mother of Jesus.

Catholics celebrate this miracle on December 8 as the Feast of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.

For more information, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church, section 490 and following: http://www.nccbuscc.org/catechism/text/pt1sect2chpt2art3p2.htm#490

+ Sources of Doctrine +

I have much more to tell you, but you cannot bear it now. But when he comes, the Spirit of truth, he will guide you to all truth. He will not speak on his own, but he will speak what he hears, and will declare to you the things that are coming. (John 16:12-13)

The Catholic Church does not use Holy Scripture as the only basis of doctrine. It could not. The early Catholic church existed before and during the time that the New Testament was written (by Catholics).

There were hundreds of Christian writings during the first and second centuries. Which New Testament writings would become official was not fully decided until about 400 C.E.

Catholics believe that the Holy Spirit was guiding the early church (and is guiding the church today) to make the correct choices about things like:
+ The Holy Trinity (which is also only hinted at in the Bible)
+ Going to church on Sunday instead of Saturday (which is actually directly against one of the Ten Commandments)
+ The Communion of Saints
+ Which writings include in the New Testament?

Things that are even more modern like
+ Slavery is bad. Slavery is never declared evil in the Bible. This was one of the justifications for slavery in the Confederate States.
+ Democracy is good. The Bible states that either God should be the leader of the nation like Israel before the kings or kings should be the leader, "Give to Caesar that which is Caesar's." This was talked about a lot during the American Revolution.

This second source of doctrine is called Apostolic Tradition.

Do Christians who do not allow the continuing guiding force of the Holy Spirit to make their beliefs more and more perfect, still endorse slavery as Colossians 3:22 commands, "Slaves, obey your human masters in everything"?

Therefore, brothers, stand firm and hold fast to the traditions that you were taught, either by an oral statement or by a letter of ours. (2 Thessalonians 2:15)

We instruct you, brothers, in the name of (our) Lord Jesus Christ,to shun any brother who conducts himself in a disorderly way and not according to the tradition they received from us. (2 Thessalonians 3:6)

I praise you because you remember me in everything and hold fast to the traditions, just as I handed them on to you. (1 Corinthians 11:2)

For more information, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church, sections 80 and following: http://www.usccb.org/catechism/text/pt1sect1chpt2.htm#80

With love in Christ.

2007-09-04 16:36:59 · answer #10 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 10 0

Notice that the original Bible also called Mary a maid, not a virgin, but the King James version misinterpreted it.

Still, does it even matter? Religion is still about arguing about conflicting ideas about invisible things with no evidence whatsoever for them.

2007-09-04 11:13:26 · answer #11 · answered by Dalarus 7 · 0 4

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