Hear me out. I think that the three verses used most often in the NT have been grossly mistranslated and misrepresented.
1 Timothy 1:10, Romans 1:27, I Corinthians 6:9
First of all, if you read different versions of the bible, you will get different wording, most of which don't say "homosexual" And since the word "homosexual" wasn't even in use until the 1910's, I'm sure it's not the word Paul used...ha!
In fact, if you look at the greek translations of the Timothy and Corinthians verses, the words Paul uses mean "male prostitution" and a word that means "man who solicites male prostitiution" Well, there are many other verses that condemn prostitution no matter who's selling and who's buying.
In the Romans verse, a more accurate translation would be to say that these people where abusing and defiling each other out of sheer lust....
If Jesus himself didn't see it a big enough deal to preach about himself, why should we? Agree or not?
2007-02-19
14:06:13
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15 answers
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asked by
Tiff
5