Is there really proof that homosexuality is a "sin"?

Question

Hear me out. I think that the three verses used most often in the NT have been grossly mistranslated and misrepresented.


1 Timothy 1:10, Romans 1:27, I Corinthians 6:9

First of all, if you read different versions of the bible, you will get different wording, most of which don't say "homosexual" And since the word "homosexual" wasn't even in use until the 1910's, I'm sure it's not the word Paul used...ha!

In fact, if you look at the greek translations of the Timothy and Corinthians verses, the words Paul uses mean "male prostitution" and a word that means "man who solicites male prostitiution" Well, there are many other verses that condemn prostitution no matter who's selling and who's buying.

In the Romans verse, a more accurate translation would be to say that these people where abusing and defiling each other out of sheer lust....

If Jesus himself didn't see it a big enough deal to preach about himself, why should we? Agree or not?

I think it's pretty interesting that I'm the one being accussed of twisting scripture when infact that's what I'm accussing you of. It's the equivilant of saying "nuh-uh, you are!!" Sophisticated resoning you are using there.

Shoot, I forgot to mention the OT - are we supposed to follow all of the Levitical laws (not wearing multi blend fabrics, not eating shell fish or pork, etc)

Didn't jesus come to sacrifice himself so we could put an end to those laws?

Answer 1

Heh. Interestingly enough, in the incident where Jesus healed the slave of a Roman officer, there's currently a debate about the exact translation of the term that's been rendered as "slave". It might have meant "slave" in the sense of a male concubine.

If that's the case, then it looks like Jesus had no problem whatsoever with gay people.

From the link listed below...

"A classic example is provided in Matthew 8. There, a Roman soldier asked Jesus to heal his "pais." This is a Greek term often used in ancient times to refer to a servant who was his master's same-sex partner. (K.J. Cover, Greek Homosexuality (Harvard University Press, Cambridge, 1978), p. 16). When the soldier said, "Lord, my 'partner' is lying at home paralyzed, in terrible distress," Jesus was immediately compassionate and spoke no words of exclusion or condemnation. He simply said, "I will come and heal him."

In the dialogue that followed, Jesus commended this Roman solider for having more faith than anyone he had ever met and assured him that he would sit down in the Kingdom of Heaven with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. By this miracle of healing, Jesus preserved this loving same-sex relationship. (For more information about the Greek term referred to above and how it should be translated, see the book recommended below.)

The Gospels are clear. Jesus refused to be bound by cultural prejudice. Repeatedly, he took up the cause of the oppressed and defended them against narrow-minded religious leaders."

And from the second link...

"Jesus did not live in Jewish Judea but in pagan Galilee. Here he would surely have been familiar with the Roman army's tolerance for homerotic relations extending across class lines. Jesus knew this was likely a homosexual relationship and by his cure indirectly endorsed it."

Answer 2

The word atheist means only "someone who does not believe in any God". Being atheist has nothing whatever to do with homosexuality or lesbianism. I am personally a heterosexual atheist and if I thought you were anything other than a fake theist who was trolling this baited question to try to stir up anger and hatred and intolerance I would point out that you are merely making a fool of yourself by using words which you obviously do not understand, and recommend you read a dictionary some time. Since you are obviously just a pathetic fake or "internet troll", I will instead recommend that -you- try to become a little more human, like everyone else, and get a life instead.

Answer 3

Kenny as Tiff posted there are many translations of the bible. It is very possible that someone may have gotten it wrong somewhere along the line. NO translation is 100% accurate. Also if you read the old and new testament you get some very different ideas between the to, contradicting view points that confuse more than give a straight answer about anything. Interpreting one or two lines here or there in the bible or any other work may suit your viewpoint but you have to analyze the entire work to get an actual meaning.

Answer 4

The "sins" of the Old Testament all had one thing in common:
Every breech of the Ten Commandments were termed "abomination", or some form of that word.
Jesus was still God in the Old Testament as the Second Person of the Trinity. So, apparently, Jesus taught about homosexuality quite extensively.

Even in Matthew 19:5, Jesus describes what is supposed to happen in a marriage: a husband is to cleve to his wife, not his boyfriend/partner.

Answer 5

No, if you look at the Greek, you will see that the words Paul uses literally translate to "male-sex." Furthermore, both Jesus and Paul say that the ONLY viable options for sexuality are either complete chastity, or the union of male and female. Male-male is simply NOT an option, despite desperate liberal attempts to rewrite the Bible.

See for example this article:
http://www.tektonics.org/qt/romhom.html

and this:
http://benwitherington.blogspot.com/2007/02/rob-bell-hits-lexington-and-packed-out.html

and this:
http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/homotheo.html

"are we supposed to follow all of the Levitical laws (not wearing multi blend fabrics, not eating shell fish or pork, etc)"
This is a false dichotomy. Since the OT laws are thrown out, does that mean I can sleep with my father and a horse? Because those are the prohibitions right next to the prohibitions of homosexuality.

Your false dichotomy suggests you haven't read the NT very closely either. If you think, "the NT says the OT doesn't apply to us," you are gravely mistaken. I strongly suggest you re-read Paul's letters, this time pay more attention.

Look at what the revisionists are saying:
"There, a Roman soldier asked Jesus to heal his "pais." This is a Greek term often used in ancient times to refer to a servant who was his master's same-sex partner."

Pais is a Greek word that means "boy." That's it. Boy. The soldier says to Jesus, "Heal my boy." That could mean his flesh-and-blood child, that could mean his servant, and it could be a euphemism for a sexual concubine. However, "pais" is OVERWHELMINGLY used in the first two senses in the entirety of Greek literature; the third sense is rare indeed. Then keep looking: the revisionist first says, "It is POSSIBLE that the NT says this." Then he says, "It in fact REALLY IS saying this" without offering any more linguistic or exegetical proof. This is pathetic logic, historical revision, the desperate attempt to rewrite Scripture to conceal one's sins.
"Jesus preserved this loving same-sex relationship"
No. You are taking what is a long-shot (at best) interpretation of the word pais, and then declaring that it is THE meaning of the verse. That is shameful.

"Repeatedly, he took up the cause of the oppressed and defended them against narrow-minded religious leaders"
He took up their cause and counselled them towards righteousness, not towards heedless sin.

"Jesus did not live in Jewish Judea but in pagan Galilee."
What? Galilee was pagan? That's news to me. And to the entire scholarly community.

Historical revisionism.

Answer 6

God’s View and what the apostle Paul said.

The Bible does not call particular attention to homosexuals as a group to be ostracized or hated by Christians. Moreover, it does not teach that God will punish homosexuals or any of his creatures, by burning them in a fiery hell forever.

However, the Scriptures do set forth the moral standards of our Creator, which oftentimes run counter to modern-day mores. Homosexual acts, heterosexual sex between unmarried persons, and bestiality are all condemned in the Bible. (Exodus 22:19; Ephesians 5:3-5) God destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah because of such sexual practices.

Regarding acts of homosexuality, God’s Word pointedly says: “This is a hateful thing.” (Leviticus 18:22, The New Jerusalem Bible) God’s Law to Israel stipulated: “When a man lies down with a male the same as one lies down with a woman, both of them have done a detestable thing. They should be put to death without fail.” (Leviticus 20:13) The same punishment was prescribed for those committing bestiality, incest, and adultery.

The apostle Paul was inspired to describe homosexual acts as expressions of “disgraceful sexual appetites” and as “contrary to nature.” At Romans 1:26-28, He writes: “That is why God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature; and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene and receiving in themselves the full recompense, which was due for their error. And just as they did not approve of holding God in accurate knowledge, God gave them up to a disapproved mental state, to do the things not fitting.”

The Scriptures offer no apologies, no concessions, no ambiguity; homosexual practices, adultery, fornication, are all repulsive in God’s sight. Accordingly, true Christians do not water down the Bible’s position on “disgraceful sexual appetites” merely to become more popular or more acceptable to modern culture. Nor do they agree with any movement dedicated to the promotion of homosexuality as a normal life-style.

When religious leaders campaign for the ordination of homosexuals and Lesbians, what effect does this have on members of their churches, especially the young people? Is it not an inducement to experiment with sex outside marriage? In contrast, God’s Word urges Christians to “flee from fornication.” (1 Corinthians 6:18) If a fellow believer falls into such sin, loving help is given with a view to restoring the person to God’s favor. (James 5:16, 19, 20) What if this help is rejected? The Bible states that unless such ones repent, they ‘will not inherit God’s kingdom.

Answer 7

Jesus said to love everybody, including those who sin. We are also not allowed to Judge other people. Churches can guide people to what is a sin and what is not, and in the end we have to make a decision. Whether or not homosexuality is a sin is something each individual has to make a choice, and he/she will account to God.

Answer 8

How about an OT verse dealing strictly with it in plain language? Leviticus 18:22, 'Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind; IT IS ABOMINATION.' You think maybe that is also grossly mistranslated and misrepresented?

Answer 9

y'know what? i'm not religious at all, nor am i a homosexual, but this is something that ruins the lives of many a person. i have a friend who is--sorry, WAS-- a lesbian and religious. then, something gave out in her internal battle. she decided that she was no longer a lesbian because she needed god in her life. last i checked, you don't change sexualities overnight.

by the way, the people who say that homosexuals are a mistake, aren't they saying that god made a mistake in creating them? isn't that to say that the infallible one is, in fact fallible? and because of that, shouldn't the world have exploded or disappeared or shouldn't hell have risen or something like that? yet... nothing's happened. so, if god does exist, he must have created homosexuals for a reason, right?

Answer 10

A sin? Did homosexuality even exists in Jesus time? I believe it's not a sin. Just like how people think homosexuality is unnatural. Hair dyes are unnatural. Was it ever a sin? People are just born in different ways, it's pretty sad to think no one can accept others. I researched your question on yahoo, and there really isn't much proof homosexuality is sinful. Even if they say so, their proofs won't really make much sense at all.