The definition of democracy which is majority rules (for the most part), implies that policies and laws would at least be at a minimum equalized between the few rich and the many non rich. But in actuality it seems that societies that are democratic have laws and policies that are designed to clearly favor the few rich above everyone else.
Does this just go back to the idea that money brings about influence that those who don't have it simply cannot compete? Which of course raises the question, if that is the case, are these really democracies?
2007-11-18
09:22:35
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3 answers
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asked by
ron j
1
in
Government