I know that many Christians (and some Muslims I know as well) have no problem at all with homosexuality, and I'm not posing the question at them.
I'm also not arguing that all sexual behaviour is good, or non abusive. Clearly some is, both heterosexual and homosexual. But I'm just wondering about how you can make a moral judgement about a sexual act purely on the basis of the gender of the participants. Is this simply because of proscriptions in holy texts, or are there other reasons?
2006-12-28
21:06:33
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11 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Religion & Spirituality