What I mean is, let's say you are flipping a coin. Is it any more likely to get tails if you have flipped 1,000,000,000,000,000,000^100,000! (lol, I like that number) heads in a row, than if it was your first flip?
I mean, it is less likely that you will get the first scenario than the second, but for the single flip that I am referring to, is it's likelyhood effected at all?
Please only answer if you have a reason behind your answer. Also, please think about your reason before you answer.
2006-08-04
19:13:04
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15 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Mathematics