mean? What constitutes the quality of "Inerrancy", which most NT scholars insist applies to the NT as well as the OT. It seems that the definition of inerrancy does not hold up under examination, and practical interpretation seems to give it another definition altogether. The word "Inerrant" should mean, without error..none. Therefore, if the Bible has NO errors, it can qualify,,,aside from copiest errors with are the case with many typesetters.. lets examine whether the Bible, especially the NT is indeed without error. I would like to ask you to validate my question by doing some basic research. IF you cannot find the answer, dont just reject the question....look further.
First item: The NT says Jesus was anointed, and according to the words of Jesus, saying, he did not come to abolish the law, but to fulfill the LAW,,,,,where in the NT did Jesus receive the anointing that was required, according to the Law of Leviticus, to be anointed?
2006-09-09
15:41:19
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10 answers
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asked by
Laughingwalt
3