I was disappointed today to read the (to me, ignorant) cacophony from answerers on another question invoking the constitution and its "law of separation of church and state." I submit that there is no, nor has there ever been, such law.
The first amendment to the constitution does state that "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof". A US Judge in Missouri has today declared unconstitutional and "scolded" a school board for allowing an outside group (the Gideons) to distribute bibles to public schoolchildren, in violation of the amendment stated above.
How can this constitutional amendment have been violated when congress has made no law? I'm sure nobody in congress was even aware of the actions (or, technically, inaction) of this school board before the case was brought by the ACLU.
Anyway, I'm not looking for a lot of back-and-forth name-calling here ... I'd be interested in seeing some intelligent discourse.
2006-09-08
10:18:54
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32 answers
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asked by
DidacticRogue
5