Without starting an argument about whether or not generic medications are equal in the active ingredient(s) -- as they are legally supposed to be under US law.....
Let's assume that they are the same (or if they aren't, please only post a comment if you have some really firm evidence that says otherwise, other than 'it just feels different' since that can be from a placebo or other effect) for the sake of this question:
If they are the same, why does the doctor have the option of marking "Do Not Substitute" on each prescription form that you give to the pharmacist? For a very small number of people, maybe an inactive filler might have an allergic reaction to someone, but I wouldn't think that's common enough to have a checkbox on every form.
Is there a good way to explain what this would be used for? Thanks!
2007-09-11
13:58:38
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4 answers
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asked by
someoneoutthereishere
2