..without a constitutional amendment?
Article 1 is clear on House and Senate membership:
- Section 2 "The House of Representatives shall be composed of Members chosen every second Year by the People of the several States..."
- Section 3 "The Senate of the United States shall be composed of two Senators from each State,"
- Section 8 Powers of Congress: "To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District..."
It took a constitutional amendment to grant the district voting rights in Presidential elections:
- Amendment 23 "The District constituting the seat of Government of the United States shall appoint in such manner as the Congress may direct: A number of electors of President and Vice President equal to the whole number of Senators and Representatives in Congress to which the District would be entitled if it were a State..."
So why do Democrats think that the district can have voting rights in Congress without a Constitutional Amendment?
2007-03-22
13:55:31
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