..without a constitutional amendment?
Article 1 is clear on House and Senate membership:
- Section 2 "The House of Representatives shall be composed of Members chosen every second Year by the People of the several States..."
- Section 3 "The Senate of the United States shall be composed of two Senators from each State,"
- Section 8 Powers of Congress: "To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District..."
It took a constitutional amendment to grant the district voting rights in Presidential elections:
- Amendment 23 "The District constituting the seat of Government of the United States shall appoint in such manner as the Congress may direct: A number of electors of President and Vice President equal to the whole number of Senators and Representatives in Congress to which the District would be entitled if it were a State..."
So why do Democrats think that the district can have voting rights in Congress without a Constitutional Amendment?
2007-03-22
13:55:31
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Peace, Love, and Harmony...you don't get it.
Democrats think that they can pass legislation and provide voting rights. That won't work. As I've described, voting rights have to be provided through constitutional amendment.
2007-03-22
14:14:18 ·
update #1
And by the way, Peace, if Dems are so savvy as you claim, why did they not pass a constitutional amendment the last time they hald majority power in both the House and Senate?
2007-03-22
14:16:06 ·
update #2