In most states, an ALLEGATION of "violence" (which has a very broad definition now) is enough to require the police to make an arrest. Evidence or not. If I move in with a woman, I am empowering her to have me sent to jail at the drop of a hat, based on hearsay. Isn't there something in the constitution about due process? Mutual arrest is also frowned upon by feminists, who have enacted policies for police to arrest only the primary aggressor, defined emphatically NOT as the instigator, or the less injured, but as the more "physically threatening" (read-male).
Okay, okay, enough of my rant. My actual question is (for all you law people out there): has this been challanged on constitutional grounds (due process clause of the 5th and 14th amendments) and if not, why not? What do you think the result would be?
2007-02-10
16:50:02
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8 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Law & Ethics