Why is it that when there is a divorce it is just assumed that the mother will get custody? Why is it assumed she is the better parent?
I am divorced and my abusive, bi-polar ex wife got custody of out 2 boys. Of course now the judge can see that I am in fact the better parent, regardless of what is between my legs, and she no longer has custody. But my question is, why, despite the police reports provided that prove her unstable nature and testimony given by others as to her inability to control herself, why was she granted custody in the first place?
Why is there such an anti-father bias in the courts that continues to allow children to be placed with abusive parents based on their sex? And what can be done to change this?
2006-09-04
10:19:35
·
14 answers
·
asked by
Sunny And '74
4
in
Marriage & Divorce