Abu Bakr and others had begun compiling editions of Muhammad's words. Some of them were chronological, and thus, would have been more readable than Uthman's. They existed in a number of different regions, pronounced differently by the seven different dialects of Islam.
Uthman responded by having every rival version burnt and assembled a committee (which he oversaw) to compile an official Quran. What did he have to lose? What was he hiding in burning the rival copies?
I don't buy the dialect story. I read English, Old English, Latin, and Ancient Greek. They have dialects, and the meaning doesn't change in them. This seems to be a cover-story. In fact, it makes sense for me of the nonsensical order of the Quran; it makes it rather difficult to read, which would be good for an alteration not to be detected.
Can anyone offer any logical reason to me not to believe Uthman corrupted the Quran? At least Christians can examine variants in ours. They weren't conveniently burnt by an emperor.
2007-04-30
15:37:37
·
7 answers
·
asked by
Innokent
4
in
Religion & Spirituality