No Kids. 8 year marriage. Own a house with $124K owed on the loan, appraising (she claims) for $150K. She wants the house, so she'll need to buy me out, as I understand it. She also says that to buy me out, she must pay half of the equity, which would be roughly $26K, minus realtors' fees of 5% (our guy would only take 2%). She also includes other fees that would bring the net amount to about $15K. Thus, to buy me out, she says, she'd owe me $7,500.
I aim to keep our car, so I'd need to pay her $4000; we'd also split her 401K ($2000 when cashed out). The way I see it, that means I should net $4,500 from the house + 401K ($7500 + $1000) minus the car ($4000). But she seems to think that she can essentially "force" me to accept property instead of cash. In other words, she could give me $4500 worth of furniture and appliances instead.
I don't want that; I NEED the money. This seems wrong to me. Is it? Is anything else in this scenario wrong? Thanks
Again - this is in Utah.
2006-09-14
17:38:43
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7 answers
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asked by
johndietzel
2
in
Marriage & Divorce