In some dialects of Spanish they use "vos" instead of "tú" and I'm just curious how this developed and where it came from. It obviously resembles "vosotros," so I was thinking that "vos" evolved from/as a shorter version to refer to the singular...? From what I know, "vos" and "vosotros" are not used in the same dialects, though; I believe that "vosotros is only used in Spain, and I know that "vos" is not used in Spain.
¡Gracias!
PS--If you learned Spanish in the US, don't you think they should have taught us this stuff? It doesn't seem like it would have been hard to learn the forms of "vos" and "vosotros," as long as they made it clear which dialects use which forms...
2006-07-04
06:29:35
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5 answers
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