I say it does. For example:
Revelations 19:8
And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.
This verse talks about the righteousness of saints which in most christian doctrines state it is not due to acts. Well...
Hebrews 9:10
Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.
The key word in both passages is this:
Dikaioma
It is the same word in both passages for righteousness and ordinances. What determines how it is translated? In this case, theology.
In modern translations they translate it properly and the same in both cases. That is, righteous acts.
Rev. 19:8
It was given to her to clothe herself in fine linen, bright and clean; for the fine linen is the righteous acts of the saints.
See how a slight change in the translation can change the meaning of a thing?
2007-11-14
03:56:00
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6 answers
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Emperor Insania Says Bye!
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