I am in Chaper 22 of Bill Mounce's Basics of Biblical Greek. We are learning about the 2nd Aorists. In English, an Aorist would be eat --> ate, because it totally changes form. That's a 2nd Aorist. If a first Aorist only adds -ed to the word to make the past tense form, an example would be study --> studied.
If 1st and Second Aorist were separated because of this difference in English formation, why did they have the two separate cases? English wasn't even around then, so how did they know that the forms in English were going to be different? Is there some other reason why there are two sets of endings that I am missing?
2007-02-05
00:59:39
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2 answers
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Apple Queen
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