= disbelief in all possibility of god? How does that make sense? Please read on (I usually get a lot of responses immediately stating, "see: agnostic". Believe it or not, an agnostic can be an atheist, and vise versa.)
"I don`t believe there is anything at all. I came to this conclusion many years ago through reading, reasoning eg: the fossil record, carbon 14 dating evidence, astronomical observations, the list goes on. Virtually everything in the bible can be disproved. If you believe in a God you may as well believe in The Flying Spaghetti Monster."
Here's how this argument looks...
Premise 1: Virtually everything in the bible can be disproved.
Conclusion: God doesn't exist.
Alright... if we revised the conclusion to say,
Conclusion: The biblical, Abrahamic God is a fictional character,
I would be much more comfortable with this argument. But the truth is, inductive reasoning in saying that the Bible being disproved, disproves all possibilities, is fallacious.
Explain?
2007-10-07
04:39:08
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22 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Religion & Spirituality