because in the original Greek the word "God" is without the article. It is without the article, but it is clear that this is not their real reason, because verses 6, 12, and 13, of the same first chapter of John contain similar usages of the word "God," all without the article. The Witnesses have translated all of these correctly with a capital "G" and without inserting "a". The only instances I have found in which they translate "God" with a small "g" are when "God" refers to Christ. It is certainly not done consistently whenever the Greek word "God" lacks the article. (See the examples in John 3:21, 8:54, 9:16, 9:33). In the case of John 1:1-3, to avoid a translation that correctly identifies Christ as God, the New World Translation ends up attributing the creation of all things to "a god!"I have found one contradiction to the claim that the lack of the article before "God" in the Greek requires the translation "a god" in English that I find particularly striking. The New World translates the very same word for "God," without an article: "…they will all be taught by Jehovah" (John 6:45). Why didn't they follow what they say is their rule and translate it, "They will all be taught by a god?" Because John 6:45 quotes the Old Testament where the Hebrew word used for God is "Jehovah" (Isa. 54:13)!
2006-06-19
13:03:05
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15 answers
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Prodical Son
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Religion & Spirituality