This comes from another question which claimed that women earn less than men because they work less. All the reasons why were associated with having children, which any full time parent will tell you IS work, and hard work at that, just not paid, and judging by the misogynist attitude to divorced women getting alimony, not at all valued either.
When a woman works less in paid work because she is doing most of the childcare why is it not reasonable to redress that in some way?
If a man took on most of the childcare and the woman carried on working (still a rare arrangement) would both men and women think that this was 'taking "equality" too far'? Or should men be given incentives to do this? If a man were given incentives would that be discrimination?
2007-12-22
04:57:15
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10 answers
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asked by
Ellesar
6