Before I came to the U.S. to be with my then boyfriend and now soon-to-be divorced spouse, I sold all my stuff (furniture, cookware, etc.) in my homeland. That was 20 years ago. He, on the other hand, had all his furniture brought in from Canada to the U.S.. So, we set up home and used his stuff ( sofa, dining table, utensils, etc). Now that we are divorcing after 20 years, he claims that the furnitutre and other stuff he had previous to our marriage is his and is considered separate property. So, now I am left with nada. I think that what he is claiming may be wrong. I have googled this to no avail. Do you think that since he co-mingled his stuff for him, myself and our child to use, it would be considered community property? If anyone of you have had experience with this, please answer this question. Thanks!
2006-12-10
13:18:51
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13 answers
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asked by
doggoneit
4
in
Marriage & Divorce