Apparently, I can drive someone else’s car (with exceptions, such as a car I am buying on HP) on my fully comp policy. Suppose a rich pal lent me his Ferrari, and his insurance covered only him, not “any driver”. If I tail-ended a Rolls-Royce – my fault entirely – would my insurance cover (a) repairs to the Rolls, but not the Ferrari (“third party” cover), (b) repairs to both cars (on a “fully comp” basis), or would my insurance be only basic “RTA” cover – damages for the whiplash sustained by the Rolls driver?
Further, if my pal’s policy on his Ferrari had just expired, and I parked it on the road and went into a shop, would there be no cover on it at all so that (1) an offence (untaxed car on the highway) was committed and (2) if I forgot the handbrake so that it rolled downhill into a bus queue causing injury, would my insurers pay the resulting damages claims?
Answers from those with knowledge, rather than speculation, please. I'm in the UK, so the rules elsewhere won't apply
2006-11-15
21:35:19
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8 answers
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asked by
andrew f
4