My friend borrowed my motorcyle and we had a verbal agreement that if anything happened while in his possession he'd be held responsible. The motorcycle doesn't have insurance b/c its not required. He got a ticket for the accident for reckless driving. Now I'm getting sent a bill for the car he hit and have my motorcycle estimate, that he stated before borrowing if anything happened he'd take responsibility, and of course now he says he's not paying. If I sue him based on the above information is it likely that the judge will make him pay for all the damages? I really need guidance on this please and thanks!
2006-09-19
16:15:14
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9 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Motorcycles