Is it really a mistake, in Mark 2:26, where it references 1 Samuel 21, and says "How he went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and did eat of the shewbread, which was not lawful to eat but for the priests, and gave also to them which were with him" (KJV)? Abiathar WAS, after all, alive at the time, so they were in his days. And also, perhaps he included the title of 'high priest' to eliminate any other people named Abiathar? I am aware of the fact that Abiathar wasn't the high priest at the time, and I am curious as to why It doesn't just say 'Ahimelech the high priest,' (i welcome any suggestions for that). But, what I'm saying is this: technically, it WAS in the days of Abiathar, and not just any Abiathar, but the same Abiathar who was a high priest. Could be said either way, but, because the statement is NOT saying that Abiathar was high priest at the time that the event occurred, simply that the event occurred in his day
2007-08-15
18:47:24
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13 answers
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satirev
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Religion & Spirituality