SCENARIO --
A same-sex couple in a community has been cohabitating in a community for 20 years. Then, one day, there no longer is any law prohibiting same-sex marriage, so they get legally married.
QUESTION --
Presumably, all those so-called "defense of marriage acts" up until then were for the purpose of defending so-called "traditional" (i.e., opposite-sex) marriage against SOMETHING. So tell me this: Just HOW will the marriage of ANY opposite-sex married couple in that community be harmed in ANY way by that formerly-cohabitating gay couple's having gotten legally married?
(I have yet to find ANY anti-gay-rights bigot who has been able to answer that.)
2007-08-10
04:01:56
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45 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender