I suppose we all are familiar with the story of the birth of a man named Jesus to a Jewish couple some 2000-odd years ago.
This produces three possibilities that I can think of:
First, the Bible is true and accurate and Mary was indeed a virgin, conceiving via the Holy Spirit and giving birth to the Son of God as prophesied by Gabriel.
Second, the word "virgin" was mistranslated through Greek from a Hebrew word meaning "young woman", or that the word "virgin" did not mean what it does now. Another way, the word was either translated incorrectly or had its meaning interpreted incorrectly.
Third, Mary was NOT a virgin when she birthed J.C., but had indeed had either extramarital or premarital intercourse that was frowned upon and became pregnant the same way anyone other woman does. Mary (regardless of whether Joseph knew or did not know the truth), came up with the immaculate conception story to avoid being ostracized from society and possibly killed.
Any thoughts?
2007-06-05
12:03:29
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19 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Religion & Spirituality