Hello, thank you for taking the time to answer this question. Please visit biblegateway.com and look up the passages Romans 10:9 and 1 Corinthians 15:26-28. The word "Lord" is used 9 times in the Bible. The "Lord" used for Romans 10:9 was used to refer to a Roman emperor, a prince, a chief, a master (probably of a slave), and other people. We could not replace Lord in the phrase Jesus is Lord with prince because Jesus technically is not a prince (or maybe not) He, according to the Bible, is King of Kings and Lord of Lords. It might mean something along the lines of Jesus is Master, but don't take my word for it. Does 1 Corinthians 15:28 contradict Jesus' Lordship by saying that Jesus will be made subject to God (probably the Father). How can Jesus be Lord of Lords and King of Kings and still be made subject to the Father? Therefore, is the Father "Lord"? Please do not give me a simplistic, "Because it's the Trinity, just believe they're equal." Please, give me your input.
2007-05-27
16:37:41
·
16 answers
·
asked by
Joe
1