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Hello, thank you for taking the time to answer this question. Please visit biblegateway.com and look up the passages Romans 10:9 and 1 Corinthians 15:26-28. The word "Lord" is used 9 times in the Bible. The "Lord" used for Romans 10:9 was used to refer to a Roman emperor, a prince, a chief, a master (probably of a slave), and other people. We could not replace Lord in the phrase Jesus is Lord with prince because Jesus technically is not a prince (or maybe not) He, according to the Bible, is King of Kings and Lord of Lords. It might mean something along the lines of Jesus is Master, but don't take my word for it. Does 1 Corinthians 15:28 contradict Jesus' Lordship by saying that Jesus will be made subject to God (probably the Father). How can Jesus be Lord of Lords and King of Kings and still be made subject to the Father? Therefore, is the Father "Lord"? Please do not give me a simplistic, "Because it's the Trinity, just believe they're equal." Please, give me your input.

2007-05-27 16:37:41 · 16 answers · asked by Joe 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

16 answers

There is propriety even in the Godhead. As in the natural, the husband is head of the wife; so in the Godhead, the Son is subject to the Father. It is the Father who has constituted the Son as Lord.

"Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."
Philippians 2:9-11

2007-05-27 16:46:48 · answer #1 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 0 0

I want to point out that the word Lord was adopted by the Kings of England to address someone that ranked higher than you. The Kings themselves since they were they highest rank of man used Lord to address God with. Because Jesus fulfilled the work that God the father required for the salvation of man. God the Father has given all the power in heaven or hell to his son Jesus. That is why no man can come to the father except by Jesus and believing in him. Therefore Jesus has become the highest rank and is the Lord of Lords and The King of Kings. learn your English read some Shakespear or something

2007-05-27 16:51:43 · answer #2 · answered by Tommiecat 7 · 0 0

You are seeking a simplistic answer to a spiritual mystery but let me try.

The term "Lord" is used throughout the bible and is a recognition of someone superior to the person using it. It was used for many people, not just Jesus.

A worldly example is: In England, the term Lord is applied to a special class of people who are above commoners. It is a recognition of status and position.

Jesus is the Spiritual Lord above all human Lords and the Spiritual King above all human Kings. The terms relate to Jesus and His relationship to humankind, not His relationship with the Father.

The Trinity is the spiritual mystery that cannot be simply explained in human terms and, in fact, is not explained in the Bible at all. Bishop Tertullian is the one who created the Trinity Doctrine for the Roman Catholic Church. It was the accepted explanation of the Godhead.

Jim

2007-05-27 16:53:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, it doesn't contridict that Jesus is King of Kings, Lord of Lords. It's just a leap of faith . Jesus is basically God, but a different part. Just like when you eat an apple. The skin, flesh, and seeds are all part of the apple. Jesus also said that if you want to be great or a leader, you have to be a servant first.

2007-05-27 17:13:15 · answer #4 · answered by JeSsiCa 2 · 0 0

Christ must subject Himself to God. This refers to the saving ministry and function of Christ, not to His eternal person and being. It does not mean that Christ is to become inferior to God and less than God. Such inferiority is impossible, for both the Son and the Father have the nature of God. They are One in their Godly nature, person, and being. It simply means that God sent Christ on the great mission to conquer all the enemies of God. Therefore, when Christ has completed His mission, He will return to God the Father and present all to God. When Christ presents all, He will also present Himself to His Father as the great and glorious conqueror. Barclay says it well:

"It is not a case of the Son being subject to the Father as a slave or even a servant is to a master. It is a case of one who has accomplished the work that was given him to do, and who returns with the glory of complete obedience as his crown. As God sent forth His Son to redeem the world so in the end God will receive back a world redeemed, and then there will be nothing in heaven or in earth outside the love and the power of God" (The Letters to the Corinthians, p.169)

2007-05-27 16:52:31 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Bible shows us that God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are all God in different persons but, the same. God is the Head of everything. Jesus is King of King and Lord of Lords. He is Head of His church and the Holy Spirit is the part of God who comforts and leads Christians. He also interprets our prayers to God and is here indwelling Christians. It's kind of difficult to understand or explain because we are human. However, when we are face to face with God, we will understand.

2007-05-27 16:49:13 · answer #6 · answered by 4HIM- Christians love 7 · 0 0

No. Jesus voluntarily "emptied himself and took the form of a slave" to save us. Phil 2:9 see also Jn 1 and 17:5. Be aware you are taking things out of context. Revelations also says he is the alpha and omega.

2007-05-27 16:48:40 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In His ministry as the incarnate Son, Christ is subject to the will of God. Yet in His essence as a member of the Trinity, He is coequal with God the Father and the Holy Spirit. At Christ's return God will put all things under Christ. Then Christ will bring all to God the Father that God may be all in all. Creation will be reconciled to God; redemption will be complete.

2007-05-27 16:43:53 · answer #8 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 4 0

I believe Paul is describing when all things are accomplished and Jesus brings everything to the feet of His Father in completion. This in no way implies that he is inferior or less than God.

2007-05-27 16:46:42 · answer #9 · answered by Daniel P 3 · 2 0

When the bible talks about Jesus being Lord of lords, and King of kings.

It is in the earthly sense.

1 Cor 8: 5 For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.


Jehovah (Ps 83:18) is God
Jesus is Lord or Master.

Ps 110:1 The utterance of Jehovah to my Lord is:
“Sit at my right hand
Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.”

explains it best.

When you take Jehovah's name out of the bible, it creates confusion and lies about who Jesus is and who Jehovah is.

Jesus is Lord of lords not because he is God, but because Jehovah has appointed him as such.

Ps 2:2 The kings of earth take their stand
And high officials themselves have massed together as one
Against Jehovah and against his anointed one,

2007-05-29 01:55:26 · answer #10 · answered by TeeM 7 · 0 0

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