I understand your position regarding Isaiah 53. However, within this Chapter, God lists several characteristics which can only apply to a sinless person (or group of people, for the sake of argument): V. 9b-10a tells us this person "had done no violence, nor was any deceit in His mouth. Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise Him; He has put Him to grief." V. 11 declares "My righteous Servant shall justify many, for He shall bear their iniquities." V. 12 says "He bore the sin of many."
If Israel (and not Yeshua) is the true "suffering servant" of Isaiah 53, then this implies God would punish sinless/blameless Israel for the sins of others, including the gentile nations.
Question: How can this be true, since God promised to punish Israel for its OWN sins and bless it immensely if it walked righteously before Him? For example, see Deut. 11 and 28. If we say Israel is the suffering servant, aren't we accusing God of breaking His promise to Israel?
2007-03-13
05:17:46
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6 answers
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asked by
Suzanne: YPA
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