Religion & Spirituality - 5 January 2007

Christians tell me that i carry the sins of adam and eve and so i must believe in jesus and follow their religion to get rid of the sin. but i find this illogical. Lets say this guy's father is a terrorist. he has sinned and so will be charged in court. But from a christian's point of view, the son of the father should also be hanged becuz he shares the same blood? An infant, when borned is totally innocent, knows nothing and have not sinned at all.Hence, i believe it is indeed sinful of these christians to call that infact sinful just becuz it has a super mega diluted blood of adam and eve. This question is asked given bible is truth and adam and eve really did exist. Thx. Nesh

2007-01-05 15:02:54 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous

2007-01-05 15:01:34 · 21 answers · asked by A fan 4

2007-01-05 15:00:55 · 34 answers · asked by maybe 3

2012 is the end of the Mayan calendar. Govt buildings in Canada used to have a moratorium of 2012(The word moratorium may also be used to describe any situation where an ongoing activity is discontinued indefinitely.)

Why then have they changed the close date of several facilities to 2009? what do they know?

2007-01-05 14:57:41 · 15 answers · asked by Eric E 3

2007-01-05 14:56:27 · 20 answers · asked by Desiree J 3

One of the fundamental beliefs of Christianity relates that Jesus died and allowed for the shedding of his blood for the sake of granting forgiveness to people. In other words Jesus died on the cross as a sacrifice for our sins. Let us investigate this topic from the Bible, and find out whether Jesus was sent to be crucified and whether he was crucified at all.
Willingness of Jesus Christ to die for our sins

Peter and the two sons of Zebedee were with Jesus Christ before the elders of the people and the chief priests came to take him to be crucified. Jesus at this point talked to Peter and the two sons of Zebedee as in Matthew 26:38 "Then saith he unto them, My soul is exceeding sorrowful, even unto death: tarry ye here, and watch with me." Then Jesus went a little further away from them and prayed to God as in Matthew 26:39 "And he went a little farther, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt."

It is very clear from the above verse in Matthew 26:39 that Jesus had no intention of dying. In this verse it is shown that Jesus was praying strongly (Matthew mentions Jesus repeating this prayer three times) to have this death removed from him. Had Jesus Christ been sent to be crucified, he would not have hesitated to be killed at all.

When I raise this point in front of my Christian brothers, they tell me that this hesitation came from the flesh side of him (in other words he was tempted), and that his soul which is godly did not have this hesitation at all. When we look at Matthew 26:38 we see that Jesus was contradicting this idea by saying, "My soul is exceeding sorrowful, even unto death." (Matthew 26:38). He himself said that it’s really his soul that was hesitating and not his body. These were Jesus’ own words.

God answered the prayers of Jesus Christ

After Jesus made the above mentioned prayer he was answered by God according to Hebrews 5:7 "Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared." These words clearly show when Jesus was praying strongly to God, God granted him his request. The words "heard in that he feared" (Hebrews 5:7) mean that God granted him what he requested. So the above verse shows when Jesus asked of God to "let this cup pass from" (Matthew 26:39) him, God responded to his prayer and saved him from death or crucifixion.

The post crucifixion prophesied events never happened

When people were asking Jesus Christ if he was going to show them a sign, he replied by saying that the only sign they should expect is the sign of Jonas. Jesus also made sure to specify what exactly this sign was. The details are shown in the following verses:

Matthew 12:38 Then certain of the scribes and of the Pharisees answered, saying, Master, we would see a sign from thee.

Matthew 12:39 But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas:

Matthew 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

Jesus here emphasized what will happen to him by specifically saying that he will be like Jonas in terms of the number of days and nights he will be in the heart of the earth, "For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth." (Matthew 12:40). Now let us see if this prophecy came to pass.

Jesus was crucified on Friday, this is certainly known among all Christians, and it’s the reason for calling that Friday by "Good Friday." Jesus was buried on Friday night. Now let us start counting:

Friday night Jesus was buried. This is night #1.
Saturday day Jesus was still in the grave. This is day #1.
Saturday night Jesus was still in the grave. This is night #2.
Mary Magdalene, very early in the morning before sun rise and after the Sabbath (Saturday), went to see Jesus, and found that he was not there. The following verses describe this event:
Mark 16:1 And when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him.

Mark 16:2 And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun.

Mark 16:3 And they said among themselves, Who shall roll us away the stone from the door of the sepulchre?

Mark 16:4 And when they looked, they saw that the stone was rolled away: for it was very great.

Mark 16:5 And entering into the sepulchre, they saw a young man sitting on the right side, clothed in a long white garment; and they were affrighted.

Mark 16:6 And he saith unto them, Be not affrighted: Ye seek Jesus of Nazareth, which was crucified: he is risen; he is not here: behold the place where they laid him.

The number of days and nights Jesus spent in the heart of the earth is 1 day and 2 nights. This challenges what Jesus had prophesied.

When I tell this to my Christian brothers, some of them responded by saying that what Jesus wanted to really say was that he will be gone for a while, and not that he will be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights. This is clearly not the case. Had Jesus meant that, he would have said it, but it is clear that he wanted people to know this was a sign (miracle) and it will be like Jonas’ sign, and he will be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights. These were his own words.

Another argument is that the Jews used a different system for the day and night which makes the prophecy come true. The idea says that Jews used to consider a day shorter than we consider it now. If you would ask a Jewish person about their calendar you would find that this is not the case, and a day does not become shorter at all. The difference between a Jewish day and a regular day is the time when the day starts and ends. Jewish people considered the day over when the sun went down, whereas now we consider midnight to be the end of a day. There is no difference in the length of the day, and accepting the Jewish day would only make things worse as far as the prophecy goes.

2007-01-05 14:53:41 · 24 answers · asked by Anonymous

2007-01-05 14:53:23 · 22 answers · asked by maybe 3

In other words, can a Muslim reject part of Islam's traditional teachings as right for the time in which it happened but wrong for today? Can a Muslim reject the story below and still be considered a follower?

Arab News has a feature on the life of Mohammed. They write:

He also had two slave girls who used to sing for him and for his companions songs full of abuse of the Prophet. The Prophet’s instructions specified that the two slave girls should also be killed.

For reference see the link below:

http://www.arabnews.com/?page=5§ion=0&article=90641&d=5&m=1&y=2007

2007-01-05 14:51:56 · 8 answers · asked by nobody 5

2007-01-05 14:51:10 · 28 answers · asked by sugar_n_spice 5

2007-01-05 14:49:27 · 39 answers · asked by Dave 4

I'm still fairly new to the Buddhist path. I'm looking for some good literature on Buddhism or how to further myself in the teachings of the Buddha.

Thanks!

2007-01-05 14:48:22 · 7 answers · asked by James 1

Whether by the will of a god or the wonders of nature, we are here, and our lives are too short as they are. Therefore we should cherish every moment we have and live our lives to their fullest, striving to be the best we can be...

Agree?

2007-01-05 14:47:40 · 14 answers · asked by silverleaf90210 3

Many people profess to believe in God, or something bigger than themselves that runs the universe, but they are unwilling to explore or expand their faith by attending or even searching for a church. In my youth I had my own issues with organized religion and have since made peace but I am curious as to how others feel about it all?

2007-01-05 14:46:48 · 24 answers · asked by MJ H 2

Currently, some (wealthy) people are being cryogenicly frozen so they can be later thawed and cured of what ever ails them (be it disease or even old age).

Many believe that the best way to do this is to cut the head from the body and only freeze the head (this is done because a head can be frozen much more rapidly; and they figure that by the time medical science can cure their disease, they will be able to grow them a new body as well).

MY QUESTION is, if we had the ability to keep the decapitated BODY alive, would we morally obligated to do so?

Thanks for answering...
Please check back for a follow-up question that I will post in the details in about 30 minuets.

2007-01-05 14:46:31 · 8 answers · asked by skeptic 6

What does this scripture mean. Do not conform to this world?

2007-01-05 14:46:22 · 16 answers · asked by Mango 1

most people bron and dead with same religion and they dont sure if they make follow right or wrong religion, they trust in what there parents say and may be go to hell trustfully(if parents are wrong)
if you find your religion have too many logical errors do you have stonge power to leave it behand you , and convert to other religion or you will lie to yourslef

2007-01-05 14:44:11 · 23 answers · asked by hado 4

am a 14 year old guy who is very religous?
I was first atheist then somehow found God. i belive that it was the coldness of knowing no God. I now go to church every week. And i have wanted to just sit in church once however i do not have the time. The preist told me that God may want me to do something for him. I now belive that the word of God is warped by man and am now looking for the truth from God. Not the imperfect man.
Is this normal for a 14 year old and what do you belive it means.

2007-01-05 14:43:37 · 25 answers · asked by Anonymous

2007-01-05 14:41:46 · 40 answers · asked by Toni C *prayer is the answer 2

For crying out loud!!! The core of christianity crumbles!

Just for a silly little misunderstanding, God sends even moral people to hell!!! Just because they didn't know if he was real or not?

Oh SORRY God, if you proved yourself then i would definitely have believed! Seriously get a grip on logic! There cannot be a personal god as the one described in the bible!

what does God have to be angry about anyway? of course we aren't going to believe if there isn't any evidence for your existence or the truth of the bible!

give it up, every should admit that immoral christians (all that don't strive to be as sinless as Jesus {none}) shouldn't be considered better than moral non-believers! the difference between believing and going to heaven and being very moral and going to hell is very big!

2007-01-05 14:41:33 · 30 answers · asked by 42yxalag 3

This is probably going to sound wierd, but I want your thoughts and opinions anyway. Will there be free-will in "heaven"? If so, wouldn't "heaven" then end up just like Earth? Or, will there be no free-will at all? (I understand that only "God" knows the answer to this, that's why I asked for opinions.) (no need to tell me it's only a fairytale either, I am not what you would call a "believer")

2007-01-05 14:41:24 · 19 answers · asked by Amanda D 3

2007-01-05 14:39:51 · 14 answers · asked by ogggggggJI 1

In John 10:30 Jesus said, "I and my Father are one." This verse, according to Christians, shows God and Jesus Christ to be same. On the other hand, we read in John 20:17, "Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God." Here Jesus stated that there was a distinction between him and God. In other words that Jesus himself had a God. Also, Matthew 27:46 "And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? That is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Here Jesus Christ cried in loud voice calling for his God.
These are two different and opposite ways Jesus relates himself to God. The first one, he and God are one, and the second, he refers to a higher authority than him which is God. Now assuming that both are correct statements then we have a contradiction. If, for example, Jesus Christ was God himself as in John 10:30 then it would be more appropriate for him to say "...and to myself, and your God." in John 20:17, or "Myself, Myself, why hast thou forsaken me?" in Matthew 27:46. If, on the other hand, one of them is wrong and the other is correct then we have to discard the one we believe to be incorrect! Since God does not make mistakes then we no longer believe the Bible is the word of God (because we believe there is a contradiction of God’s words in the Bible).

A third possibility is that we have to look at how we can interpret the words of Jesus in those verses. As far as John 20:17 and Matthew 27:46 it is very clear Jesus had a God whom he prayed to and Whom had a higher authority than his own. We can back this up with other verses from the Bible that say, "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me." (John 5:30). Also Jesus said, "...for my Father is greater than I" (John 14:28). If Jesus and God were the same then he would not have said what he said in the above verses.

Now, the only verse that can be interpreted is John 10:30. It is the only one that does not render itself clear. The only way John 10:30 could be interpreted such that it does not contradict all the other verses is by saying that Jesus meant he and God had something in common.

To find out what the common grounds were, we have to look at the context in which this verse came:

John 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:

John 10:28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.

John 10:29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand.

John 10:30 I and my Father are one.

As can be seen from John 10:28 and John 10:29 Jesus was telling the Jews that he and God share something in common, and it was: no one can pluck the faithful from either of their hands. This was the common factor between Jesus and God in this case, and not that Jesus was himself God, or that they were exactly the same.

Let us go on to see what Jesus says in John 10:

John 10:31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.

John 10:32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I showed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?

John 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

John 10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

John 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

John 10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

John 10:37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.

John 10:38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.

John 10:39 Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand,

John 10:40 And went away again beyond Jordan…

In John 10:31 we see that the Jews misunderstood what Jesus had meant by "I and my Father are one." (John 10:30). And in John 10:33 they accused him of blasphemy. Now, had Jesus been God, or had he and God been one in a literal sense then he wouldn’t have hesitated to clarify the matter at that point. Jesus at that point said, "Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?" What he was trying to say was that if the Jews called "I and my Father are one" blasphemy then they should call what was written in their law "Ye are gods" blasphemy too.

The reasoning behind this is "Ye are gods" does not mean that you, the Jews, are Gods, it is rather an expression. It just means that you are godly people. The same applies to "I and my Father are one." It does not mean that Jesus is God or that he and God are the same literally. It’s just an expression. (The same goes for calling himself "the Son of God." This statement should not be taken literally either).

The Holy Quran says, "...Nothing whatsoever (is there) like the like of Him, and He (alone) is All-Hearing and All-Seeing" (Ch 42: Vr 11). Nothing at all is like God, not Moses, not Jesus, not Muhammad, and certainly nothing of His creation.

2007-01-05 14:38:43 · 21 answers · asked by Anonymous

2007-01-05 14:38:43 · 3 answers · asked by sharon l 1

For example, Rama has been criticized because he does not believe his wife. Can you tell me where I can find the source of it in the net?

2007-01-05 14:37:16 · 3 answers · asked by yayak 1

2007-01-05 14:36:41 · 19 answers · asked by -skrowzdm- 4

I was first atheist then somehow found God. i belive that it was the coldness of knowing no God. I now go to church every week. And i have wanted to just sit in church once however i do not have the time. The preist told me that God may want me to do something for him. I now belive that the word of God is warped and am now looking for the truth.
Is this normal for a 14 year old and what do you belive it means.

2007-01-05 14:36:27 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous

2007-01-05 14:36:18 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous

need answers!!!!!!

2007-01-05 14:35:46 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous

Does your place of worship value the elderly and people with disabilities?

I’m asking this question to people of all faiths. Does your house of worship/Faith community value people who may be physically or mentally limited in some way?

My elderly mother is a devout Christian. She taught Sunday School for most of her adult life, and was always very active in the church. Because of poor health she moved across the country to live with my sister a few years back. She is now very much isolated; my sister works during the day and my mother is unable to drive.

I think part of the problem is that her new church only knows her as she is now, an elderly lady in poor health. She tells me how much it would mean to her if they would just give her a few names to pray for each week. I think it hurts that she is always on the top of the church prayer list. She feels useless to the church.

It would only take 5 minutes for somebody to call her each week and give her a prayer list.

2007-01-05 14:33:36 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous

2007-01-05 14:32:01 · 15 answers · asked by The Truth 2.0 5