Serious, non-mocking question.
In the book of John, chapter 8, when the Pharisees bring a woman accused of adultery before Jesus and ask his advice as to what should be done with her, does Jesus say "He who has not sinned, let him cast the first stone" or "He who has not sinned WITH HER, let him cast the first stone"?
I know how the KJV and NIV read, but I heard or read somewhere that the latter is the more accurate translation? Is this so? Does this significantly change the meaning of the passage?
Thank you for sharing your knowledge and viewpoints.
2006-09-29
05:03:23
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13 answers
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asked by
Anonymous