Serious, non-mocking question.
In the book of John, chapter 8, when the Pharisees bring a woman accused of adultery before Jesus and ask his advice as to what should be done with her, does Jesus say "He who has not sinned, let him cast the first stone" or "He who has not sinned WITH HER, let him cast the first stone"?
I know how the KJV and NIV read, but I heard or read somewhere that the latter is the more accurate translation? Is this so? Does this significantly change the meaning of the passage?
Thank you for sharing your knowledge and viewpoints.
2006-09-29 05:03:23 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
NewCatholic asked: "So you are saying that the whole Crowd had sinned with her, the religious leaders and all???"
I'm not saying this--but apparently that is what is meant by those who were suggesting the second phrasing.
2006-09-29 05:15:57 · update #1
He who is without sin among you...
If any of you have never sinned...
those who have never sinned...
The sinless of you...
Has any one of you not sinned?...
The one among you who has never done any wrong thing...
These are the variations I found out of 20 versions of the Bible. There is no indications that a person who had not sinner with her could stone her.
2006-09-29 05:46:45 · answer #1 · answered by cnm 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe both are accurate. The law says that if a woman is caught in adultery then she is to be stoned to death. The pharisees wanted to trap Jesus. If he neglected to suggest stoning which the law required. He could of been charged at that moment for being a lawbreaker. The actual law prescribed stoning only if she was betrothed virgin; the man was to be stoned as well. (Lev. 20:10,Deut.22:22-24) Jesus did advocate stoning but he would have brought wrath from the roman government to bear upon himself. Jesus didn't break the law though but he ensured woman that she would not be stoned. Hope this help.
=0)
2006-09-29 05:20:32 · answer #2 · answered by Pashur 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I think that it is unlikely that the NIV made a mistake in translation since they seemed to have a large committee working on it with all of our modern knowledge of ancient Greek.
If someone is implying that the woman slept with someone in the crowd (or perhaps everyone in the crowd at some point in time, since she may have been a known prostitute), I suppose that this is possible. After all, they claimed to have caught the woman in the very act of committing adultery, but for some reason, they failed to catch the man. The text does not say, I believe.
2006-09-29 05:18:01 · answer #3 · answered by Randy G 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
So you are saying that the whole Crowd had sinned with her, the religious leaders and all???
Sounds far fetched. It is "he who is without sin"
One of the reasons Jesus is the Son of God, a simple Prophet would have said, "stone her" that was according to the law at the time.
Jesus brought the new Covenant between God and All men. We are not to use those violent methods anymore and we are not to judge our fellow man.
It (Religious laws imposed by mortal men) was being abused way back then and still is now.
Follow Jesus!
Peace!
2006-09-29 05:11:00 · answer #4 · answered by C 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Actually it is he who is without sin, let him cast the first stone. It said before hand that she was caught in the act of fornication. Although they both should have been stoned to death if the pharisee were playing by the rules and following the letter of the Law they were using against her.
2006-09-29 05:10:54 · answer #5 · answered by mortgagegirl101 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The more interesting part of the passage is that she was caught in "the very act". By law both should have been stoned to death. Where was the other participant? This was a set up to trap Jesus. He knew it.
2006-09-29 05:30:56 · answer #6 · answered by Buck B 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No, the correct translation is "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her."
Peace.
2006-09-29 05:11:15 · answer #7 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I believe that the first KJV rendering is correct.
Either way, we are not suppose to condemn people, but we are suppose to point out what will happen to them in the day of judgment and help them to become right with God (and maybe they can help us get closer to God also).
2006-09-29 05:12:02 · answer #8 · answered by tim 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This was a quote from the Law of Moses and it was he who was with out sin. other wise she would have to be a very busy girl to keep safe. no its to keep the self *********** from killing every one off.
2006-09-29 05:10:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
matters not as the point is there are none of us who are without sin. we should remove the log from our own eye before worrying about removing the splinter from our neighbor's eye.
2006-09-29 05:09:07 · answer #10 · answered by Marvin R 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋