Did Jesus ever claim to be Lord?
"There is condensation and editing; there is choice, reproduction and
witness. The Gospels have come through the mind of the Church behind the
authors. They represent experience and history." (Kenneth Cragg, the
Anglican Bishop of Jerusalem, The Call of the Minaret, p 277)
Jesus never claimed that he was literally the son of God, or God. There are
many verses in the Bible confirming this fact. None of the verses quoted
directly from Jesus support Trinity or deity of Jesus, if we eliminate the
interpretations of St. Paul and his disciples. We will present those verses
in the coming questions. It is a well known historical fact that today's
Christianity is the product of the Nicene Conference (325 AD). In that
conference, the clergy established the Trinity and banned many Gospels that
did not contain their distorted ideas. In today's Bible there are a few
distorted verses about the divinity of Jesus, which contradict the whole
Old Testament, and the majority of the Gospels.
Some outstanding Christian scholars have reached the conclusion that the
deity of Jesus is a mere fabrication. As the examples of critical studies
on Christianity, here I list the name of two books: The Myth of God
Incarnate, John Hick, ed., The Westminster, Philadelphia, 1977, and Jesus:
Myth & Message, Lisa Spray, Universal Unity, Fremont, California, 1992.
The doctrine of modern Christianity with its implication that God Almighty
has a multiple personality, and that He sacrificed one of His personalities
for the salvation of human kind, has nothing to do with Jesus, as we will
discuss in the next questions.
Two translations, two meanings
Here are two translations of Matthew 7:21. One is from the version
authorized by a king (not God), King James, The other is The New American
Bible, which was translated by the members of Catholic Biblical Association
of America. Notice the contradiction between the two translations in the
first three words of that verse:
King James Version:
"Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom
of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven."
The New American Bible (1970):
"None of those who cry out, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of God but
only the one who does the will of my Father in heaven."
In light of the verses that follow (Mt 7:22,23), which clearly indicate
Jesus' anger and displeasure at people who call him "Lord, Lord", it is
obvious that both translators distorted Mt 7:21 in a different manner.
Ironically, by comparing them side by side, the true account inevitably
emerges: "None of those who call me, 'Lord, Lord,'. . ."
Our question for Christian Scholars on Mt 7:21 has two parts. The simple
part of the question is:
Which One Is Correct:
"Not every one..." OR "None of those..." ?
And the difficult part is: Why?
2006-08-29
03:18:05
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19 answers
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asked by
ewshs
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